Mark Twain said, "It 's easier to fool people than to convince them that they have been fooled".
Homer is a constant source of frustration for archaeologists, for philologists and all commentators ... hundreds of pages with thousands of names, events, references, locations,
etc. But they end up confusing rather than help us to clarify them. But if the solution was different from those painstakingly elaborated over the centuries by writers? Why Homer continued to praise the art of deception? Because he slept ... or because it is he who has deceived all of us for 3000 years? And the myths are only fairy tales, or are born from real events of which we just begin to glimpse the origin?

Seven articles of Alberto Majrani on the site of archaeologist Pierluigi Montalbano with automatic translation (you can click on google translator and select INGLESE as language)

Many other abstract in italian here
from the new book by Alberto Majrani entitled L'ASTUTO OMERO The CUNNING HOMER – Ulysses, Nobody, Philoctetes and the ingenious deception of the Odyssey

mercoledì 18 novembre 2020

But... was Homer blind? NOOO!!!


Was Homer blind? NOOO! In his essay "Greek culture and the origins of European thought", the philologist Bruno Snell highlights how "Homer uses for example a great variety of verbs to denote the operation of sight: ὁρᾶν, ἰδεῖν, λεύσσειν, ἀθρεῖν, θεᾶσθαι, σκέπτεσθαι , ὄσσεσθαι, δενδίλλειν, δέρκεσθαι, παπταίνειν. Of these, several have gone out of use in later Greek, at any rate in prose literature and in the living speech […]. Only two words make their appearance after the time of Homer». I am not here to report the precise meaning of the various verbs, because I should often resort to long turns of words, and whoever wants can easily find the complete explanation on the internet, however it would be really strange if such a lexical richness to express the act of seeing was used by someone who cannot see.

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